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A question not yet answered

My wife asks if the Doctor can sense whether or not there are other Time Lords around, how come he couldn't detect the presence of Mr Saxon/the Master in the early 21st century?

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( 13 comments — Leave a comment )
grahamsleight
Jun. 17th, 2007 06:05 pm (UTC)
Good question. Dunno. Also, why did he not do anything about the Face of Boe's prediction eight episodes back? Denial is one answer, but not a very good one.
communicator
Jun. 17th, 2007 06:20 pm (UTC)
His attention was occupied with other and more immediate threats?
strange_complex
Jun. 17th, 2007 06:23 pm (UTC)
Indeed! I'm about to post my own list of unanswered questions - but I hadn't thought of that one at all.
davesangel
Jun. 17th, 2007 06:36 pm (UTC)
The Doctor hasn't actually encountered the Master/Mr. Saxon yet in his trips to 21st century London, so he won't have sensed him because he hasn't been in the same environment as him for long enough. Saxon is mentioned very briefly in 'Smith and Jones' and 'The Lazarus Experiment', but nobody encounters him onscreen (particularly the Doctor, who isn't even aware that he exists). Perhaps it's more a case of having to be in the same vicinity as the Time Lord (or reasonably close) in order to be able to sense him?
white_hart
Jun. 17th, 2007 06:41 pm (UTC)
Because he's given up looking?
jeanne_dark
Jun. 17th, 2007 06:49 pm (UTC)
Timelines. I'm thinking that the Doctor didn't sense him in the past because, from his own personal timeline, the Master was still in his human form, since he hadn't come across him yet and started the chain of events that led to Yana discovering who he really was. So while, for the Master, it had already happened, for the Doctor, it only had the possibility of happening until it actually did, so their timelines are out of synch with each other until they meet again at the end of the series, whereupon the Doctor's Time Lord sense starts working again. If, err, that makes any sense?

(I think this because isn't there a thought that the Doctor is rooted to a specific timeline in Gallifreyan history? And since the Master is of the same race, so would he be, and I'm thinking that that would extend to their own sense of each other as well, even with their planet gone boom.)
dalmeny
Jun. 23rd, 2007 01:35 am (UTC)
I think this sort of logic is the only way to have any plot continuity at all between Time Lords.
doyle_sb4
Jun. 17th, 2007 06:49 pm (UTC)
Maybe when he says that in Dalek he assumes that any other Time Lords would have no reason to be physically shielding themselves from him.
snowking
Jun. 17th, 2007 07:03 pm (UTC)
A wizard did it.
captainlucy
Jun. 17th, 2007 11:02 pm (UTC)
I reckon that Master Sixon was psychically shielding himself from the Doctor.
nickbarnes
Jun. 18th, 2007 06:46 am (UTC)
Uh, because in Nu Who, we learn not to ask difficult questions?
artw
Jun. 18th, 2007 08:16 am (UTC)
That is of course the correct answer. I try not to, I really do, but sometimes I just can't help myself.
But I never, never attempt to solve N's number puzzle posts, so I'm not all bad.
liberaliser
Jun. 23rd, 2007 09:45 pm (UTC)
Wibbly-wobbly, timey-wimey...
Just like Shakespeare actually. And why not.
( 13 comments — Leave a comment )

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